Khazar Theory? It’s Junk

[CrackSmokeRepublican]

This guy tries to slam Christian Identity as supporting the Jewish "Khazar" theory...however, AFAIK, C.I. doesn't believe this. C.I. says Jews were Shemitic Edomites.  C.I. holds that the God's people (Jews of the Bible) were Indo-European in origin like the Scythians, (pre-Turk) Hittites, Armenians, Greeks and Romans.

This guy maybe right, but for the wrong reasons.

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Khazar theory? It's Junk (Part 1)
Posted by James Houston

Feb 8

In  the annals of historical controversy, Jews seem to always hold center stage. While being known as one of the most well documented peoples in the worlds history, their history is ironically the most hotly contested. Primarily, a great deal of this discord and contention comes mostly from either Antisemitism, or opposition to the the modern state of Israel.    For the later, the Khazar theory is a popular discussion piece because it fuels a fundamental belief that Jews have no right to live within the Middle East. (Alla Helen Thomas' "go back to Poland")

While it may seem anachronistic for modern people to grasp, Jewishness is an ethnic identity all it's own. Christianity and Islam are somewhat different in that adoption of said faiths do not in it of themselves change ones ethnic identity or culture to a great extent. For those who propose the Khazar theory however, Judaism is mainly a religion and todays Jews are just foolishly mistaken as to who they "really are". The theory goes that the majority, if not all, of the Ashkenazim Jews of the world are in fact descended from a semi-nomadic people known as Khazars whose King in the late 800′s AD converted in to Judaism (the theory posits that the entirety of the population converted as well). From this claimed mass of Khazars we get what we know as the Ashkenazim. The Khazars lived in the area of the Ukraine and Georgia at the time. For many unwary listeners this theory makes a great deal of sense. The Ashkenazim after all lived in that area until recently, they (Ashkenazim Jews) look fairly similar to Europeans (Not like the typical image we have of Arabs) and thus it seems like a logical conclusion that this theory is true. However the theory falls apart under even the most basic elements of scrutiny.

The conventional history of the Ashkenazim is that they were birthed primarily from Jewish populations from the Middle East who had settled in the Roman Empire, and of course various European converts (Nobody denies some converted). This founder population eventually migrated into what is now southern Germany and eastern Germany and began to use a Germanic language called Yiddish. During the years of the black death, the Ashkenazim were expelled and sent eastward to Poland, Russia, and the Ukraine. This is all well documented and fairly established fact, but for Khazar theorists, this is simply an artificial "lie".

Linguistics, genetics, and chronology all stand in stark opposition to this theory being true. However it persists to this day, in spite of all the evidence to the contrary. Often being reinvited in modern circles or held firmly by cults such as the white supremecist "Christian identiy" or the black supremecist "Black Hebrew Israelites". Whoever is perpetuating it they are perpetuating bullshit.
For this first part I shall cover the basic flawed chronology of the theory and issues with it's population claims. The claims of a westward migration and the claim that the Ashkenazim (Ashkenaz being the Hebrew word for the Germany) did not get it's start in Germany. Also the claim that the reason for the Ashkenazim being so demographically large is due to an ancient infusion or founder population that consisted of an entirely different ethnicity.

One fact comes up strikingly in the Khazar theory, it's flawed chronology. While to the untrained eye the notion that Jews who, we recall, lived in southern Russia could easily be connected to the Khazars of the same region, we find that this is based on a belief that the Ashkenazim had lived there that far back. Basically a belief that a large Jewish population lived in southern Russia and Eastern Europe since 1090 AD till 1945 AD. After all why go from Israel to Russia right? However these assumptions are fundamentally false.

Khazaria fell in around the year 1090 AD; the arrival of Jews in Eastern Europe and the area that was once Khazaria did not take place until around 1492. Yes, not until Columbus sailed the ocean blue did Jews come to Poland in any great number. Before this time period the Jewish population was pitifully small. This rises in opposition into a common claim that if not for the Khazars where did all of these Ashkenazic Jews come from. After all by the 20th century they accounted for 90% of the worlds Jews. Surely they must have gotten a huge boost or been founded by the great mass conversion of an entire nation. How else do you get so many millions? (People like Sand don't know where babies come from). By most calculations and census data the number of Jews living in say, Poland, a full four hundred years after the Khazarias demise and the alleged mass migration of this great number of Khazar Jews, which made the Ashkenazim so massive according to the theorists, was a staggering, 24,000 to 30,000..... Take a deep breath I know such a massive number right? By 1764 when Poland and Lithuania (The host nations for the largest numbers of Jews) was a staggering 750,000. Not even a million lived in Eastern Europe at the time. So this "stagging" population bubble that many claim to be evidence that "They had to have gotten a population boost to get to 9 million" is false. As this population boom doesn't seem to happen till the mid 1800′s. Around the same time the populations of all peoples in Europe skyrocket. Accounting for natural and documented population growth and known migrations we can easily account for where this great mass of Jews came from, and how they got there. No need for a great mass conversion.

Another glaring problem is the somewhat epic time lapse between the fall of Khazaria and the Birth of the Ashkenazim. Considering the semi-nomadic nature of the Khazars, and assuming they all became Jewish (this one being a faulty assumption), why did it take them nearly 400 years to move 693 miles? The Distance between what is now Krakow Poland and the Crimean Peninsula (The Khazars last real stronghold) is somewhat short (Almost 693 miles by most maps). Another factor is the documentation that the first Jewish communities appeared in western Poland and over the next few centuries moved eastward towards the land that was once Khazaria. For a nomadic people of the Altaic they sure move slow.

Consider that, Khazaria allegedly mass converts to Judaism, then is destroyed and completely vanishes for 400 years only to spend that time traveling some 600 – 900 miles and crossing the western border of a country and heading back east towards where they originally started? Without leaving any documentation of first crossing and heading west? How can this be? Well authors such as Schlomo Sand and Author Koestler never really explain that fact. Sand merely argues that "there is no historical finding to point to the migration of Jews from west Germany to the eastern part of the continent" (p. 232), which is true but a fallacy in that most linguistic and historical experts (along with records from the time of the black death which shows the expulsions and where they went and came from) point out that the origins for Jews of the Ashkenaz was along southern and eastern Germany. I guess technically Sand was right, no evidence in the west, though nobody was claimed that. Thanks Mrs. Shapira for pointing that glaring fact (See sources).

Here alone we see that the first and raw basis for the theory of Khazar origins for the Ashkenazim is based loosely on faulty assumptions on a mass migration for which no documentary evidence exists. Also on beliefs in a population infusion which never happened.  In fact evidence suggests that the migration was in the opposite direction that Khazar theorists claim. Not only that but the theory also omits a 400-500 year stop gap between Khazarias destruction and the Ashkenazim Jews arrival in Eastern Europe. Finally there is no evidence for a population infusion.

With that I conclude part one of my debunking of the Khazar theory, the next bit will be a rough covering of genetic evidence and linguistic evidence after that.

Sources:

    The Jewish-people deniers, http://www.isracampus.org.il/Extra%20Fi ... 0review.pd
    Dunlop, D.M. The History of the Jewish Khazars. New York: Schocken, 1967
    "The Plague." The Plague. History Channel. HIST. Television.

http://houstonslastword.com/?p=7

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Khazar Theory? It's Junk (Part 2)
Posted by James Houston

Feb 14

In the last article on the subject of the Khazar Theory, I covered population and chronological issues with the Khazar theory. Namely a lack of evidence for a massive boom in the Ashkenazim population within a reasonable time scale, and census data issues, and finally the fact that nearly 400 years passes between the fall of Khazaria and a Jewish presence in Eastern Europe.

For this second half I will go into the genetic evidence, and the linguistic evidence...

Until the advent of modern technology, the theory did not face it's toughest test to date. That being genetic testing. With the discovery of a Cohen Gene showing that Jews of the Aaronic priestly caste are indeed of some common ancestral origin, the Khazar theory falls apart right there. As Cohen carriers appear in such widely dispersed groups and differing areas that it would be chronologically insane to posit a Khazar theory. If Ashkenazim Cohen are related by descent with Sephardim Cohen, Mizrahi Cohen, and even the long isolated South African Lemba who allege the same "Israelite" origins, one would have to either argue all these groups are of Khazar origin. Or in fact none of them are, or that the Khazar contribution was limited.

Also genetic material linking Jewish communities together in commonality seems to discount the overall general thesis of Schlomo sand, that being that a Jewish people is completely fictional.

Moving on from genetic issues, one comes into the problems of language. The Ashkenazim spoke Yiddish, an Indo-European Germanic language. The Khazars spoke a Turkic language of the Turko-Altaic family. The two language groups are unrelated to one another and in fact are in two separate linguistic families. This is somewhat of an issue because Yiddish has no substantial Turkic components or traces of Turkic origin. If it did it likely wouldn't be classified as Germanic. Slavic words are definitely within the lexicon but the language is decidedly Germanic in grammar, style and other such important factors in determining linguistic origins. Paul Wexler argues that duel rounds of "relaxification" took place which caused Yiddish to expunge all traces of it's original Turkic heritage. But this is idle speculation, I could argue English is just incredibly relaxified Arabic and that the relaxification caused us to dispel our original Arabic origins. Considering Yiddish is most like German dialects spoken in Southern Germany and Eastern Germany, where the language allegedly came from, I'd say that it's insane to jump out on such a wild limb. Yiddish is Germanic, not Turkic. If the Ashkenazim were the direct descendent's and were founded by the Khazar converted kingdom then why suddenly switch languages? Why get rid of Turkic and take on German? Especially if the likes of Schlomo Sand argue that this population never went to Germany or had any presence there? It would be akin to a central African tribe immigrating to France and then deciding to speak Cherokee once they got there. It just doesn't add up.

Sources:

    http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1274378/
    http://www.familytreedna.com/pdf/43026_Doron.pdf

To conclude this two part exposition of the Khazar Theory and why it's bunk...

    Yiddish is the Language of the Ashkenazim. Yiddish is Indo-European and distinctly Germanic in origin. It is not Turkic which would have been the language of the Khazars.
    Genetically all Jewish communities show commonality, even those that have been highly isolated from other communities seem to indicate a common origin.
    Cohens exist in nearly every community, From Ashkenazim to Lemba. With no contact existing between the two it would be impossible for the two to have this link if a common origin or founder population did not exist.
    Chronologically the Khazar theory contradicts all written records and information we have.
    Population growth does not support the notion of a sudden boost in Ashkenazim or the emergance of the Ashkenazim in 1066 AD when Khazaria fell.

http://houstonslastword.com/?p=76

[CrackSmokeRepublican]

Fake Jewish Ancestry by Way of DNA

Commentary from YouTube (not mine).

The Jewish Gene theory is a false thesis. U.S. research teams led by Ashkenazi Jews themselves, like Hammer and Wilder. Based on the Cohen, and EU 19 gene being of Jews? And they own or control the very Labs this stuff comes out from. How can they say that? In fact they have started to get major corporate sponsorship from other Askenazi Jews to promote this crap. Like Google owners, and so on.

Whats funny too these DNA guys have no Semite lab gene to compare. How can you say you are the descendants of the real Jews, and you don't have a gene in your lab to compare? So they make assumptions, notice coincidences similar to Arabs of the region like illness's they have like Arabs, and they forget Asian Orientals have that too, and on top off that fabricate that they have a common gene with the middle eastern people. That's it folks. They spent millions to say they have a gene similar to Arabs. This makes them Jewish? Or the Arabs Jewish?

But what they fail to know, is the Arabs, Orientals, Bedouin, and Berbers are mixed too in blood. And they traveled or come from all over Europe at much of the same time, and mixed with the populaces of those countries as well prior. We find the Ashkenazi gene popping up in non-Jews, and Arabs, and Berbers, and Bedouins, in the same areas of all their testing. Why don't they mention this is their testing? Why just Israelis? Something they don't want to tell you in their research.

And what about the Palestinians and Syrians and Lebanese who also have the same gene found in their blood. Just do the simple math, and the answer is right in front of you.

Lets take a small step back in time. And recount the days when then Mongols, and the Turks sacked Jerusalem. Both groups would have interbred and have children, and marry. And when the Mongols, and Turks had also been conquered they would leave Jerusalem and go back to their home lands. With their new children mind you. These children would almost be a new race. Mixed with Khazarian, Mongol, Turkish, and Jewish, and Arab, Bedouin, and Berber bloods. Not to mention a dash of spicy Greek, and Roman too from prior invasions. And they would end up in the far Northern regions of the middle east, Europe, Eastern Europe, and Khazaria, and Turkey, and parts of Asia and Russia for the matter, and for each perspective invasion and retreat to their home land at the time. We honestly can only say there is no proof in any of the theories set out by Hammer, or Wilder that they are Jewish in genetics. We just don't know.

The new people even after the Khazars would have been Ashkenazi's. Descendants of the Khazars. And that blood too is even further diluted from the Mongol Khazars, and Turks. So by now any trace would be wiped out, or gone. One thing to consider is the culture of the Jews at the time of the Mongol, and the Turk invasions. The Jews at the time were in shambles. There was inter sex with Arabs, Turks, Mongol's, Roman's, Greek's, and other cultures. But of the priestly class, they did not marry in general to any other person, unless they converted to Judaism or was a Jew.

So the answer in all the testing is simple. We don't know. And we may never know actually. We don't have in our lab a gene to compare. Genetics is genetics. Not assumptions as Abrahami pointed out. So there is no support for the Jewish Gene theory.

Besides, these lab guys are scientist, and not historians, if you look at both sides of the research, they can't line up. So this is a false assumption to make about Jewish Genes.

Great scientific quotes about this thesis "Geneticist Steven Rose said, Biologists define "race" as a group or population differing in gene frequency from that of others in the same species. "If race as a classification had any use at all, it served as a mere convenience to distinguish between geographic groups of people. In the process, individual variances must first be abolished and the group's characteristics reduced to an average, to an imaginary prototype if you will, that has no basis in physical genetic reality". Writes Montague.

So my theory is now introduced and confirmed. Why? Steve Rose sad it best in his theory. And this is why I mentioned why wasn't the genes of modern middle easterners like the Arabs, Berbers, and Bedouin of the region included in the testing to isolate and compare? And why does my tests show the same genes show up in these cultures as well? To some it up, we will never have the answer. We can only assume. And you know what that does to you and me? We know more about King Tuts' genes and ancestors, then we will ever know about the Hebrews genes. Ever! We just aren't interested in Hebrews

http://wakeupfromyourslumber.com/video/ ... ry-way-dna